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#1
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| Hello, I want to ask a question about natural frequency of a simple, undamped spring-mass system under forced vibration. As textbooks tell us, when the forcing frequency is matched with the natural frquency of the system, vibration resonance is achieved and as a result the vibration amplitude is amplified to an infinitively large value. My questions are: 1. In resonance cases, where does the large vibrating energy come from ? 2. In non-resonance cases, the vibration amplitudes are relatively smaller. Where does the vibration energy go? Textbooks illustrate these phenomena quite clearly through equations. But I want to know more on the physical side. Does anyone here give physical explanations? Thanks. CSL |
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#2
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| Dear CSL: "CSL" <[Only registered users see links. ]> wrote in message news:446d44ea$1@127.0.0.1... From the "forcing" source. The mass is simply a "piggy bank" for kinetic then potential then kinetic... energy. You find that not as much energy is put into the system since, off resonance, the force and the motion are out of phase (or not as much in phase). So with the mass moving counter to the driving force (part of the time), energy is *taken out* of the mass. I hope that helps. David A. Smith |
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#3
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#4
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| Dear CSL: "CSL" <[Only registered users see links. ]> wrote in message news:446d98a8$1@127.0.0.1... .... "infinitely"... an infinitive is something else. Infinitely many cycles, right. And real physical systems break long before... sometimes after just a few cycles. In fact, real physical systems have non-linear springs, always have non-linear damping, and masses that are distributed rather than point. David A. Smith |
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| explanations , needed , physical , resonance |
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