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#1
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| throwing a ball on the object why is it 'easier' to rotate the object when acting on the point farther away from the point of rotation (with greater r) ? i know it is connected with angular momentum and so on but why is it so? it seems to me that it must be because of the way force/acceleration/momentum/whatever the best is 'distributed' between the points/particles/atoms/?? of the object but i cant think of any good way to touch this subject. could anyone help? |
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#2
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| and what would that reason be? |
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#3
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#4
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| [Only registered users see links. ] this lecture states the same in a different way but gives no reason. you cant use A to prove A this lecture assumes that you will mulitply by r but gives no reason why sure the numbers are correct but that's hardly a reason. as far as i can see to give a reson one would have to describe forces (or whatever good word) acting on and within the bolt. |
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#5
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| and the wrench. even more important |
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#6
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| you just said the same in a more mathematical way. it's not a reason of any kind. to give the reason you would have to arrive at t = I*a starting from F = m*a (and or course you cant use other angular equations like L = r x p untill you get it from linear one) Finding out that you get a correct result by multiplying force by some vector which in some magical way happens to be equal to r is not the explanation i am looking for. |
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#7
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| ah and of course you cant use any other conservation laws. only linear momentum. everything else would be finding some magical equation that somehow fits. |
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#8
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| why? why is torque for a fixed force direct proportional to the distance from the fulcrum? it is still magic to me. |
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#9
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#10
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| > Torque is by definition the product of the of the force and the distance i am really speechelss here. are you trying to help me or annoy me? cause you are doing the other. so please stop. |
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| easier , greater , rotation |
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